Bible Translators
One must double check on what the translators of the Bible did in their translating. I read a list of errors in numbers and disregarded a few that had, what I thought, was a logical explanation. The two verses in question are:
"And it (the brass lavior) was an hand breadth thick, and the brim thereof was wrought like the brim of a cup,
with flowers of lilies: it contained two thousand baths." ((1 Kings 7:26)
"And the thickness of it was an handbreadth, and the brim of it like the work of the brim of a cup, with flowers
of lilies; and it received and held three thousand baths." (11 Chron. 4:5)
The explanation given by bibleists was that when the brass lavior was filled the way it was normally used, it contained 2,000 baths, but if it was filled completely full, to the brim, it received and held 3,000 baths. This sounded reasonable to me, however I wondered if the translators really did their job right. I checked, and guess what? They didn't.
The word "contained" (1 Kings) and the word "held" (11 Chron.) are the VERY SAME HEBREW WORD. # 3557 in Strong's Heb. Lex.; kool; a prim. root; prop. to keep in; hence to measure. The word "received" is # 2388; khaw-zak'; a prim. root; to fasten upon. So, "received" meant to received (to fasten).
Could it be that the translators saw a contradiction in numbers, so they used two different English words, i.e. contained and held, in order to make a way out?
Submitted by William F Henness
"And it (the brass lavior) was an hand breadth thick, and the brim thereof was wrought like the brim of a cup,
with flowers of lilies: it contained two thousand baths." ((1 Kings 7:26)
"And the thickness of it was an handbreadth, and the brim of it like the work of the brim of a cup, with flowers
of lilies; and it received and held three thousand baths." (11 Chron. 4:5)
The explanation given by bibleists was that when the brass lavior was filled the way it was normally used, it contained 2,000 baths, but if it was filled completely full, to the brim, it received and held 3,000 baths. This sounded reasonable to me, however I wondered if the translators really did their job right. I checked, and guess what? They didn't.
The word "contained" (1 Kings) and the word "held" (11 Chron.) are the VERY SAME HEBREW WORD. # 3557 in Strong's Heb. Lex.; kool; a prim. root; prop. to keep in; hence to measure. The word "received" is # 2388; khaw-zak'; a prim. root; to fasten upon. So, "received" meant to received (to fasten).
Could it be that the translators saw a contradiction in numbers, so they used two different English words, i.e. contained and held, in order to make a way out?
Submitted by William F Henness
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